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Obviously having a constant f/2.8 aperture is better than a varied f/2.8-f/4 or worse, but given the aperture f/2.8 is given as how big the aperture is in comparison to the focal length, surely the same physical aperture (rather than f/ number) would mean a changing f/ number along a zoom range.
The 70-200 f/2.8s for example:
At 200mm, f/2.8, the entrance pupil's diameter is 200/2.8, or roughly 70mm.
At 70mm, f/2.8, the entrance pupil's diameter is 70/2.8, or 25mm.
A 70mm entrance pupil at 70mm focal length would give f/1.0.
Clearly there is something wrong with my thinking, or the optical performance of these lenses falls off of a horrible cliff once they start being that far open at those lengths; if my logic wasn't flawed then the pro lenses would be 70-200 f/1-2.8s rather than f/2.8. I'm just looking for why it is. The glass is there and the entrance pupil is large enough, so why does it not open as much at the short end as at the long end?
The 70-200 f/2.8s for example:
At 200mm, f/2.8, the entrance pupil's diameter is 200/2.8, or roughly 70mm.
At 70mm, f/2.8, the entrance pupil's diameter is 70/2.8, or 25mm.
A 70mm entrance pupil at 70mm focal length would give f/1.0.
Clearly there is something wrong with my thinking, or the optical performance of these lenses falls off of a horrible cliff once they start being that far open at those lengths; if my logic wasn't flawed then the pro lenses would be 70-200 f/1-2.8s rather than f/2.8. I'm just looking for why it is. The glass is there and the entrance pupil is large enough, so why does it not open as much at the short end as at the long end?

I knew someone would post that. A pretty extreme example though.